Friday, April 15, 2011

Some Thoughts on Romans 3:21-26

Romans 1:18-3:20 demonstrates the terrible human predicament: God’s condemnation of humanity precisely because all are sinful, none are able to meet his standard, and all need his righteousness. There is no hope, no optimism of rescue, as God has revealed his wrath and anger toward sin and humanity leaving all to suffer the consequences of condemnation. In light of that dismal reality, the next section (Rom 3:21-5:21) introduces a sharp contrast to what has previously been stated in the letter. There, Paul discusses how God will provide for the universal need for righteousness by telling the Romans that God has revealed his righteousness (as it compares and contrasts with the revealing of his wrath) through the person and work of Jesus Christ. For this reason, the message of hope and rescue comes not by mankind’s merit or ability, but by Jesus Christ and his work on the cross.

The small section that will be examined (3:21-26) not only shows how God has provided righteousness but also explains how the revelation of God’s righteousness in Christ’s work on the cross lays the foundation for one’s justification (or the means in which hope and rescue from condemnation has come back to man).

The words “but now” in v.21 indicate a crucial change in Paul’s argumentation, as well as a temporal change or new phrase in salvation history, as it declares the arrival of a new age. This logical and temporal change has been “attested by the law and the prophets” (v.21). And what is being attested in the OT is that “God’s righteousness” (understood as a declaration by God that humanity is righteousness and now possesses that status) “has been disclosed or revealed” and thus is nothing new or foreign. Paul will latter provide a more detailed discussion of OT proof of this claim in chapter 4 (Rom 4:1-3, 9-23; cf. Abraham: Gen 15:6; and Rom 4:4-8; cf. David: Ps. 32:1-2). 

Next, Paul specifically tells his Roman readers what has always been true; “namely, the righteousness of God through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ for all who believe” (3:22). In other words, the divine declaration that humanity is righteousness and now possesses that status is made possible by Christ’s faithfulness and not mankind’s faithfulness. Moreover, through Christ’s faithfulness humanity is rescued from the horrible and destructive consequence of their sin.

The human predicament is of course the result of sin, because “all have sinned” (Rom 3:23), and the reason why all have sinned is due to one man’s sin-Adam (for through Adam all have sinned (Rom 5:12)), and also because mankind perpetually “fall short of the glory of God” (v.23). The glory spoken of here seems to be a reference to God’s splendor and a manifestation of his character or attribute. In one sense Christians are called to share in this glory, since they are made in his image. But due to sin believers fail to live up to certain expectations. It is for this reason that “there is no distinction” among humanity (v.22b). For mankind is alike in that each person has not only sinned in Adam but personally sinned and continually fails to live up to what he has been called and even made to do.  

And with the hope in the Second Adam (Christ) is righteousness that leads to life (Rom 5:18). As stated earlier, this righteousness and life is not a result of something man merited, but a result of something done for and even to man. And this righteousness of God and life is “for all who believe” (3:22).

The method or means in which God justifies sinful humanity is by his free grace, “through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus” (v.24). The word for “justify” is a legal or forensic term, referring to the law court imagery. And the meaning of the word implies that one is declared or pronounced just not made just. Such a meaning would support the interpretation of the phrase “the righteousness of God” as a declaration or pronouncement that one is just and now possesses that status. In other words, “the righteousness of God” is a reference to how God justifies humanity, and he does this “through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ” (v.22).  

Next, the word for “grace” means that God declares sinners just on account of nothing meritoriously performed on their part. In other words, mankind is justified without merit. It is all by the grace of God, and this grace of God has been demonstrated by the redemption of Christ. Also, the word for “redemption” implies that we are released or delivered from something-namely sin, since all have sinned or are sinful. The word is understood in light of one purchasing or ransoming another from slavery or captivity. But the question is, To whom is the ransom being paid to? In light of the passage’s suggesting that sin is personal and not simply an object or agent that mankind is enslaved to, it seems reasonable to suggest that one is purchased from his/her personal captivity to sin. Therefore, as the passage centers on sin or the sinful state of the individual, Christ has purchased the individual back from his/her sinful status and fallen standing. Once more, the death of Christ on the cross secures one’s release from bondage to sin and rescue from the condemnation and destructive wrath of God.

Paul then goes on to give further ground for this justification. He states that Christ was presented by God as a “mercy seat” (v.25a). The Greek word hilasterion has been traditionally translated as “propitiation,” which would be a reference to the object upon whom anger or wrath is appeased or satisfied. However, it seems best to translate it as “mercy seat” not because of any particular theological stance, but because of what is being pictured here in light of OT imagery. Given this preferred translation, a general reference is being made to the “sacrifice of atonement” or “the place of satisfaction or atonement.” More specifically though, this “mercy seat” is a reference to the covering of the ark where the blood of the animal was sprinkled in the OT ritual on the Day of Atonement (Yom Kippur). This term is used in only one other place in the NT: Heb 9:5. There it should also be rendered “mercy seat” as it describes the altar in the most holy place (the holy of holies) where the duties of the high priest were performed (9:6). The OT imagery is thus one of Christ being the final and ultimate sacrifice and place where our sins our covered and God’s wrath is satisfied and thus averted for those who believe. Once more, Paul is saying that God displayed Jesus as the “mercy seat,” the place where propitiation was accomplished.

The means of accessibly and effectively receiving the benefits listed above is “through faith” (v.25a). This recalls the universality of the previous phrase “for all who believe” (v.22) and the subsequent phrase “the one who lives or has faith” (v.26) As a result, Paul is emphasizing the necessity of faith, as it by the means of faith that one’s sins are covered and thus declared just. There is nothing meritorious about faith. Yes it is in a sense a work, but a work that is graciously provided as a result of someone else’s work; namely “the faithfulness of Jesus Christ.” (vv. 22, 26). One’s justification is based on God and his grace, founded in Christ’s work on the cross, and distributed by faith.
  
This passage is the very heart of the Gospel. As the entire world lay guilty of sin, God by his grace provides a way for mankind to be justified. The way God makes this reality certain is by sending his own faithful son, who in his death covers mankind’s sins, thus forgiving us of them. The faith of Christ is the efficient cause of mankind’s justification and the faith of mankind is the instrumental cause of justification.   

6 comments:

  1. Nick, when you refer to "Christ's faithfulness," what in particular do you have in mind (i.e. his obedience, his preaching, all of the above?).

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  2. I have in mind his obedience. More specifically, Christ's faithfulness in carrying out the Father's saving action (or God's righteousness). Your thoughts? Also, would you be opposed to my subjective genitive translation?

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  3. My problem with taking it as "the faithfulness of Christ" is that this has in mind Jesus' obedience alone, and when we consider his obedience, we mean his obedience to the Father, his preaching, his healing his willingly giving himself on the cross. But the saving act occurs also when God executes his just judgment upon Jesus, condemning him on the cross. It also occurs in the resurrection. He was raised "for our justification (Rom 4:25)." For this reason, among others, I don't think "faithfulness of Christ" is what is meant here.

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  4. I wonder if all you stated above would still be theologically true given the subjective meaning. Christ's obedience is of course exhibited in his death, but also in his life (i.e. his teaching and ministering). At this point I'm not for sure as to how his resurrection fits into the subjective meaning here (and possibly it doesn't) but it at least vindicates his faithfulness. Right? 

    Moreover, insisting on the faith or faithfulness of Jesus Christ does not deny faith in Jesus Christ. Speaking within the Pauline corpus, the later idea is clearly expressed but would most likely be done so with the verb for "believe" rather than the noun. For more see Wallace, Greek Grammar, 113-16.

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  5. Nick, I haven't forgotten about your question. I'll respond when I get a chance

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  6. No worries. I completely understand. I look forward to reading your comments when you have time to respond.

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